Let $$ f(x) = \arcsin\left(\frac{2x}{1+x^2}\right). $$ What is the value of $f'(1)$?
The function splits into $$ f(x) = \begin{cases} \phantom{\pi-\,}2\arctan(x), & \text{if $-1 \leq x \leq 1$},\\ \pi - 2\arctan(x), & \text{if $x > 1$}. \end{cases} $$
I differentiated the function corresponding to $1$ but my answer is coming to be $1$, but the book tells me the answer does not exist. How can we say the derivative doesn't exist?
Note that $\arcsin$ is differentiable in $(-1,1)$, but it is not differentiable at $\pm1$. Since $\frac{2\times1}{1+1^2}=1$, it would be strange indeed if $f(x)=\arcsin\left(\frac{2x}{1+x^2}\right)$ was differentiable at $1$.