Given $AV= \begin{bmatrix}8\\8 \\ 8 \\8\end{bmatrix}$, where A is a matrix and V is a vector, find $A^{-1}V$.
My thought are the following:
Step 1:
Times $A^{-1}$ for both sides.
$A^{-1}AV=A^{-1} \begin{bmatrix}8\\8 \\ 8 \\8\end{bmatrix}$
$V=8A^{-1} \begin{bmatrix}1\\1 \\ 1 \\1\end{bmatrix}$
$\frac{1}{8} V=A^{-1} \begin{bmatrix}1\\1 \\ 1 \\1\end{bmatrix}$
Step 2:
Can I assume $AV=\lambda V=8*\begin{bmatrix}1\\1 \\ 1 \\1\end{bmatrix}$ here? Hence, $V=\begin{bmatrix}1\\1 \\ 1 \\1\end{bmatrix}$? Is this a correct step?
Step 3:
If step 2 is correct, then
$\frac{1}{8}V = \frac{1}{8} \begin{bmatrix}1\\1 \\ 1 \\1\end{bmatrix}=A^{-1} \begin{bmatrix}1\\1 \\ 1 \\1\end{bmatrix}=A^{-1} V=\begin{bmatrix} \frac{1}{8} \\ \frac{1}{8} \\ \frac{1}{8} \\\frac{1}{8}\end{bmatrix}$
Does the above inference sounds right?
In general, no you can't assume $AV = \lambda V$. Not every vector is an eigenvector. Even if $V$ were an eigenvector, then this would still not give you a well-defined answer.
For one example, take $A = I$, the $4 \times 4$ identity matrix. Then $AV = V$, hence $V = \begin{bmatrix} 8 \\ 8 \\ 8 \\ 8 \end{bmatrix} \neq \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 1 \\ 1 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix}$.
As another example, take $A = 2I$. Then $AV = 2V$, hence $V = \begin{bmatrix} 4 \\ 4 \\ 4 \\ 4 \end{bmatrix} \neq \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 1 \\ 1 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix}$.
As you can see, there clearly needs to be more conditions placed on $A$ before this has a clear solution.