I tried to solve this problem; and I looked at the answer. It said that $e^{\frac{-r}{n}} =\sum_{0}^{\infty}{\frac{(\frac{-r}{n})^k}{k!}}\approx 1-\frac{r}{n} $ I can't under stand the summation approximation.
Thank you so much for your reply.
I tried to solve this problem; and I looked at the answer. It said that $e^{\frac{-r}{n}} =\sum_{0}^{\infty}{\frac{(\frac{-r}{n})^k}{k!}}\approx 1-\frac{r}{n} $ I can't under stand the summation approximation.
Thank you so much for your reply.
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