Given that $f(x^2+x+1)=f(x^2-x+1)$ for all $x$, is $f(x)$ periodic?

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Given that $f(x)$ is a function defined on $\mathbb{R}$, satisfying $$f(x^2+x+1)=f(x^2-x+1)\;\;\; \forall\;\;\;x\in\mathbb{R}$$ Is $f(x)$ periodic?

My Attempt:

$$f((x+\frac{1}{2})^2+\frac{3}{4})=f((x-\frac{1}{2})^2+\frac{3}{4})$$

Let $x-\frac{1}{2}=t$

$$f((t+1)^2+\frac{3}{4})=f(t^2+\frac{3}{4})$$

Let $g(t)$ be a polynomial defined as $$g(t)=t^2+\frac{3}{4}$$

Can I conclude anything from this?

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$$f((t+1)^2+\frac{3}{4})=f(t^2+\frac{3}{4})$$

Definition of a periodic function $f(x+a)=f(x)$

As you can see in your equation $a$ is 1

or you can do it like this $$f(x^2+x+1)=f(x^2-x+1)\;\;\; \forall\;\;\;x\in\mathbb{R}$$

Now put $x+1$ in the second equation in place of $x$ they both become equal which means

$$g(x+1)=g(x)$$ Thus period of your function $g(x)=f(x^2-x+1) $ is 1