- if and only if, span{v} = S, then $T(S) \subset S$
- add to that, that v is a eigen vector of $T \in L(V,V)$ (collection of all linear transformation from V to V) if and only iff is a eigen vector of (T-$\alpha$*I) for all $\alpha \in K$
my attemp:
1) From left to right: if v is a eigen vector of T, then it's trivial that T(v)=$\alpha_v$v,in which $\alpha_v$ is the eigenvalue associated with v. Then, since every element on span{v} is lineally independent, then $(\alpha_v)v \in S$ for any $\alpha_v$ in K
From right to left: the right side is telling us there exist linear transformation T such that $T(span{v}) \in span{v}$ then that means that T(span{v}) its a linear combination of span{v}. Then v must be a eighvector of v
2) With respect to this one, there's is something I don't understand yet: if v es a eigenvector of a linear transformation that belongs to the collection of al LT that goes from V to V, then why (T-$\alpha$*I) works for every $\alpha \in K$ and not to the respective eigenvalues of v? what's that im not getting?
thanks, I know this question is between a proof-verification and a real question, but since the excersise is put together, i wanted to ask both. I really want to know what i am getting wrong or if i am actually doin it.
Let $b\in K$ be the eigen value of $v$. if $b=0$ then $T(span(v))=\{0\}$, the null space, and is contained in every subspace, so we need $b \neq 0$.
And $(T - \alpha^*I)v=(b-\alpha^*)v$ so we better not have $\alpha=b^*$ because $v$ will not be an egien vector given, again, that the "eigen value" would be $0$.