Given three positive numbers $x, y, z$. Prove that $$(x+ y- z)\left ( \frac{3}{x+ y}- \frac{1}{y+ z}- \frac{1}{z+ x} \right )\leqq \frac{1}{2}$$
First solution. Subtracting $(\!x+ y- z\!)(\!\frac{3}{x+ y}- \frac{1}{y+ z}- \frac{1}{z+ x}\!)$ from $1\div 2$, we have the following one: $$\frac{(x+ 2y)(z+ x- 2y)^{2}+ 2(4x+ 5y+ 18z)(x+ y- 2z)^{2}+ 30y(y- z)^{2}+ 39x(x- z)^{2}}{48(x+ y)(y+ z)(z+ x)}\geqq 0$$ How about another solution? I hope to see that. Thanks!
Hint
If $x+y\leqslant z$ the inequality is obvious*. Else we may write it as $$\frac3{x+y}\leqslant \frac1{x+z}+\frac1{y+z}+\frac1{2x+2y-2z}$$
which easily follows from Jensen’s inequality.
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PS: In case not so obvious, $$\frac1{x+z}+\frac1{y+z} \leqslant \frac1{2x+y} + \frac1{x+2y} \leqslant \frac2{x+y}$$