I have a very simple question, that I still haven't found an answer to yet: Gödel is said to have proven that Peano Arithmetic (or any system capable of expressing it) can't prove its own consistency.
His proof relies on the notion that we can construct a statement, that, on a meta-level, means "This statement can not be proven" and from this he follows that the arithmetical statement itself cannot be proven.
But if I see it correctly, this conclusion can't be derived formally. As I see it, his proof shows that the statement that is represented ("This statement can't proven") cannot be proven, but not that the statement it is represented with (an arithmetical statement) can't be proven.
Gödels proof confuses meaning with meta-meaning; he follows from the impossibility of proving the meta-statement the impossibility of proving the actual statement, which is not a provably valid step (though it may be intuitively valid, that is debateable).
So, as most mathematicians would disagree with this, how does Gödel show that the statement that the self-referential unprovability statement is represented with can't be proven?
It seems to me Gödel's theorem can't be proven. That a system can't prove its own consistency is just true because it is simply obvious that no system can prove its own consistency for the very simple reason that the notion of consistency ultimately can't be formalized.
Almost all mathematicians would disagree with me, but what is wrong with my argument that Gödel confuses statement and meta-statement (which might be valid, but can't be proven to be valid)?
This strikes me as a strangely philosophical objection to a mathematical theorem. Whether or not you agree with the standard interpretation of Gödel's Theorem has no relevance to the question of whether Gödel's Theorem has been proven. Gödel's Theorem has been proven -- all of the terms used in the statement of the theorem have been defined rigorously, and the conclusion follows from the premises in a rigorous way. Concerns about meaning and meta-meaning have no relevance to the proof, because "meaning" and "meta-meaning" are not rigorously defined terms, and nothing in the proof references these ideas.
It is reasonable to object to the standard interpretation of Gödel's Theorem. In some sense, Gödel constructed a mathematical model of mathematics itself, and proved that certain statements about mathematics are true in his model. (Note: I'm using the word "model" here in the usual informal sense, e.g. a mathematical model of fluid flow or protein folding.) There is no doubt that Gödel's model in fact has these properties, but you may or may not agree that mathematics actually has these properties, depending on whether you think the model is accurate.