We know that if $X$ is an inner product space with a base $B$, then we can construct (by Gram-Schmidt) an orthogonal base $B'$ for $B$.
But, if we only have a linearly independent subset of $X$, lets say it $A=\{x_n\}_{n \in \mathbb{N}} $ then can we construct a orthogonal set $A'$ from $A$ by doing the same ( Gram-Schmidt) process ?.
And if so, will they have the same $Span$?
2026-05-15 11:30:33.1778844633
On
Gram-Schmidt in a linearly independent set.
122 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail At
2
There are 2 best solutions below
0
On
Suppose Gram-Schmidt works on a basis of an inner product space $(X, I)$, and we have a linearly independent set $A$. Then $A$ is a basis for its span $S$. Now restrict our inner product to $S$ to get $I|_S$. We then apply Gram-Schmidt to the basis $A$ of the inner product space $(S, I|_S)$ to get an orthogonal basis $A'$. But of course $A'$ is orthogonal in $(X, I)$, spans $S$, and is linearly independent in $X$; we are done.
Yes. Note that the Gram-Schmidt process requires only a linearly independent set (and all bases are linearly independent).
A proof that this works is by induction. Suppose that $\{x_k\}_{1 \leqq k \leqq n}$ is a linearly independent set of vectors, then (note: we will normalise the vectors at the end because this substantially simplifies things)