I'm solving a question and get the following formula: $\sum_{i=0}^{n}\frac{1}{i+1}\binom{n}{i}\sigma^{i}(1-\sigma)^{n-i}$
I'm curious if there is a simpler form of this formula. I've found some related questions, but still can't solve this one.
Thank you for your response.
Using that $\frac{1}{i+1}=\int\limits_0^1 t^i dt$ and replace the order of the summation and integration we get:
$(1-\sigma)^n\int\limits_0^1\sum\limits_{i=0}^{n}\binom{n}{i}\big(\frac{\sigma t}{1-\sigma}\big)^{i}dt$
With the application of the binomial theorem and perform the integration we have the result:
$(1-\sigma)^n\int\limits_0^1\big(1+\frac{\sigma t}{1-\sigma}\big)^ndt=\int\limits_0^1(1-\sigma+\sigma t)^ndt=\frac{1-(1-\sigma)^{n+1}}{(1+n)\sigma}$