Question

Do $\sum_{x,y} f(x)g(x,y) = 1$ and $\sum_{x} f(x) = 1$ for $f(x)>0$, $g(x,y)>0$ imply $\sum_{y} g(x,y) = 1$?

score 43 · Answer 1 · 2018-12-28 18:02:33

43

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Do $\sum_{x,y} f(x)g(x,y) = 1$ and $\sum_{x} f(x) = 1$ for $f(x)>0$, $g(x,y)>0$ imply $\sum_{y} g(x,y) = 1$?

Published on 28 Dec 2018 - 18:02

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List Question

Do $\sum_{x,y} f(x)g(x,y) = 1$ and $\sum_{x} f(x) = 1$ for $f(x)>0$, $g(x,y)>0$ imply $\sum_{y} g(x,y) = 1$?

Find the probability that "At least one person..." with multiple variables.

Can events come from different sample spaces in conditional probability?

Probability of ending up with a particular card on top when placing random cards in random spots

Same even but two different probabilites

Finding conditional expectation and conditional probability

Earthquakes in another country Assume that in an other country the probability that during a year at least one earthquake happens is 0,3...

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Joint conditional distribution

Proving $(X,Y)$ is a normal vector when $X\sim N(1,1)$ and $Y\mid X\sim N(3X,4)$

3 judges problem. Binomial-like distribution.

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