Question

Approximate a measurable set with an elementary set of equal measure?

score 160 · Answer 1 · 2026-04-13 12:57:39

160

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Approximate a measurable set with an elementary set of equal measure?

Published on 13 Apr 2026 - 12:57

score 93 · Answer 2 · 2026-04-13 03:11:03

93

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Background for starting measure theoretic probability

Published on 13 Apr 2026 - 3:11

score 107 · Answer 3 · 2026-04-14 17:21:27

107

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Finding the norm of the operator $M_g : L_p \to L_p$ where $g \in L_{\infty}$

Published on 14 Apr 2026 - 17:21

score 76 · Answer 4 · 2026-04-10 03:09:24

76

Views

Is it possible to construct probability theory which is not based on measure theory but on logic?

Published on 10 Apr 2026 - 3:09

score 53 · Answer 5 · 2026-04-15 04:26:10

53

Views

Probability space of "talking 3 balls in a box that contain 5 balls"

Published on 15 Apr 2026 - 4:26

score 89 · Answer 6 · 2026-04-09 06:14:44

89

Views

Wiener space, probability measure, local martingale

Published on 09 Apr 2026 - 6:14

score 109 · Answer 7 · 2026-04-16 10:15:22

109

Views

σ-algebras on the space of functions of bounded variation

Published on 16 Apr 2026 - 10:15

score 41 · Answer 8 · 2026-04-15 15:02:03

41

Views

space of integrable simple functions is not complete

Published on 15 Apr 2026 - 15:02

score 78 · Answer 9 · 2026-03-25 08:07:51

78

Views

Map between positive linear functionals over locally compact Hausdorff space to measure is 1-1?

Published on 25 Mar 2026 - 8:07

score 73 · Answer 10 · 2026-04-12 12:53:45

73

Views

Limit of finite measure

Published on 12 Apr 2026 - 12:53

score 221 · Answer 11 · 2026-04-12 10:11:45

221

Views

Countable additivity does not imply continuity at $\emptyset$ for non-finite measure

Published on 12 Apr 2026 - 10:11

score 67 · Answer 12 · 2026-04-10 03:30:17

67

Views

Outer Hausdorff measure/Infinite

Published on 10 Apr 2026 - 3:30

score 97 · Answer 13 · 2026-04-15 09:48:25

Does it make sense to evaluate a function that is defined almost everywhere ? For example, if $f(x)=0$ does it make sense to say $f(1)=1$?

score 132 · Answer 14 · 2026-04-17 15:08:14

$f$ is $μ$-integrable , then given $\epsilon > 0$, $ \exists δ > 0$ such that $\forall D ∈ A$ with $μ(D) < δ$, one has $\int_{D}|f|dμ < \epsilon $

score 31 · Answer 15 · 2026-04-16 02:10:32

Show that, $\forall A \in \sigma(F) , \forall \epsilon > 0, \exists B \in F_{\sigma}$ such that $\mu(B \text{ \ }A) < \epsilon$

List Question

Approximate a measurable set with an elementary set of equal measure?

Background for starting measure theoretic probability

Finding the norm of the operator $M_g : L_p \to L_p$ where $g \in L_{\infty}$

Is it possible to construct probability theory which is not based on measure theory but on logic?

Probability space of "talking 3 balls in a box that contain 5 balls"

Wiener space, probability measure, local martingale

σ-algebras on the space of functions of bounded variation

space of integrable simple functions is not complete

Map between positive linear functionals over locally compact Hausdorff space to measure is 1-1?

Limit of finite measure

Countable additivity does not imply continuity at $\emptyset$ for non-finite measure

Outer Hausdorff measure/Infinite

Does it make sense to evaluate a function that is defined almost everywhere ? For example, if $f(x)=0$ does it make sense to say $f(1)=1$?

$f$ is $μ$-integrable , then given $\epsilon > 0$, $ \exists δ > 0$ such that $\forall D ∈ A$ with $μ(D) < δ$, one has $\int_{D}|f|dμ < \epsilon $

Show that, $\forall A \in \sigma(F) , \forall \epsilon > 0, \exists B \in F_{\sigma}$ such that $\mu(B \text{ \ }A) < \epsilon$

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