The following is a proof of
$$\frac{\partial(u,v)}{\partial(x,y)}.\frac{\partial(x,y)}{\partial(u,v)} = 1$$

In the above proof, I cannot understand why $\frac{\partial u}{\partial v} = 0$ and $\frac{\partial v}{\partial u} = 0$. Since, $u$ and $v$ are independent variables, $\frac{\partial v}{\partial u}$ and $\frac{\partial u}{\partial v}$ seem to have no meaning. $ $ $ $ $ $
Your book's exposition is a little confusing, since it has $x, y, u, v$ being used as both variables and functions.
To make it clearer, I will try to re-derive the result using $x, y, u, v$ as variables and $X, Y, U, V$ as functions.
Suppose we have the functions $U(x, y), V(x, y), X(u, v), Y(u, v)$ such that the following relations hold:
$$X(U(x, y), V(x, y)) = x$$ $$Y(U(x, y), V(x, y)) = y$$ $$U(X(u, v), Y(u, v)) = u$$ $$V(X(u, v), Y(u, v)) = u$$
These are exactly the conditions that hold when the functions $U, V, X, Y$ specify two alternate coordinate systems. Here is a diagram of the situation
where the action of $X,Y$ on points $u,v$ is depicted as a black arrow and the action of $U,V$ on points $x,y$ is depicted as a purple arrow.
Now the expressions $\partial[X|Y|U|V]/\partial[x|y|u|v]$ will make sense for all choices of "numerator" and "denominator" where the functions $X, Y, U, V$ must do double duty. In the expressions $\partial X/\partial x$ and $\partial X/\partial y$, the function $X$ stands for $X(U(x,y), V(x,y))$, and in the expressions $\partial X/\partial u$ and $\partial X/\partial v$, $X$ stands for $X(u,v)$.
Taking derivative of the first relation with respect to $x$ and applying the chain rule, you will arrive at $d_1X (U(x,y), V(x,y)) d_1U(x, y) + d_2X (U(x, y), V(x,y)) d_1V(x,y) = 1$ where $d_i$ means derivative with respect to the $i^{th}$ coordinate.
Writing this in the more terse and implicit notation we will get $\partial X/\partial u \, \partial U/\partial x + \partial X/ \partial v \, \partial V/\partial x = 1$.
Writing it even more confusingly, we get your book's presentation $\partial x/\partial u \, \partial u/\partial x + \partial x/\partial v \, \partial v/\partial x = 1$.
It should be straightforward applications of the chain rule to verify the other 3 equations.
Alternatively, a one liner proof:
In general if you have two functions $A : S_1 \subset \mathbb R^n \rightarrow S_2 \subset \mathbb R^n$, $B : S_2 \subset \mathbb R^n \rightarrow S_1 \subset \mathbb R^n$ such that $A(B(x)) = x$ and $B(A(x)) = x$ for all $x \in S_2, S_1$ respectively.
We have immediately $A'(B(x))B'(x) = I$ by the higher dimensional chain rule.