Proof axiomatically:
$\vdash \forall x (\neg (Ax \rightarrow Bx) \rightarrow (\neg Ax \rightarrow \neg Bx))$
You can use in your deduction as step the equivalence of $\varphi$ with $\neg\neg\varphi$:
$\varphi\vdash\neg\neg\varphi$ and $\neg\neg \varphi \vdash \varphi$
Also used are the following axioms:
1 $(∀x(φ→ψ)) \rightarrow (\forall x \varphi \rightarrow \forall x \psi)$
2 $\varphi \rightarrow \forall x \varphi$ ($x$ not free in $\varphi$)
3 $\forall x \varphi \rightarrow [t/x]\varphi$
a $\varphi \rightarrow (\psi \rightarrow \varphi)$
b $\varphi \rightarrow (\psi \rightarrow \chi) \rightarrow ((\varphi \rightarrow \psi)\rightarrow(\varphi \rightarrow \chi))$
c $(\neg \varphi \rightarrow \neg \psi) \rightarrow (\psi \rightarrow \varphi)$
So starting out on this question, I had hopes of delivering an answer. But alas, my plans were foiled, I could not get a deduction. So, I decided to have a peek at the answer, and it baffled me completely:
- $\vdash Bx \rightarrow (Ax \rightarrow Bx)$ (a)
- $\neg\neg Bx\vdash Bx$ ($\neg\neg\varphi\vdash\varphi$)
- $\neg\neg Bx \vdash Ax \rightarrow Bx$ (MP, 1, 2)
- $Ax \rightarrow Bx \vdash \neg\neg(Ax \rightarrow Bx)$ ($\varphi\vdash\neg\neg\varphi$)
- $\vdash (Ax \rightarrow Bx) \rightarrow \neg\neg(Ax \rightarrow Bx)$ (deduction theorem on 4)
- $\neg\neg Bx \vdash \neg\neg(Ax \rightarrow Bx)$ (MP, 3, 5)
- $\vdash \neg\neg Bx \rightarrow \neg\neg(Ax \rightarrow Bx)$ (deduction theorem on 6)
- $\vdash (\neg\neg Bx \rightarrow \neg\neg(Ax \rightarrow Bx)) \rightarrow (\neg(Ax \rightarrow Bx) \rightarrow \neg Bx)$ (c)
- $\vdash \neg(Ax \rightarrow Bx) \rightarrow \neg Bx$ (MP, 7, 8)
- $\neg(Ax \rightarrow Bx) \vdash \neg(Ax \rightarrow Bx)$ (assumption)
- $\neg(Ax \rightarrow Bx) \vdash \neg Bx$ (MP, 9, 10)
- $\vdash \neg Bx \rightarrow (\neg Ax \rightarrow \neg Bx)$ (a)
- $\neg(Ax \rightarrow Bx) \vdash (\neg Ax \rightarrow \neg Bx)$ (MP, 11, 12)
- $\vdash \neg(Ax \rightarrow Bx) \rightarrow (\neg Ax \rightarrow \neg Bx)$ (deduction theorem on 13)
- $\vdash \forall x (\neg(Ax \rightarrow Bx) \rightarrow (\neg Ax \rightarrow \neg Bx))$ (universal generalization on 14)
Starting from 1, I immediately run into a wall. I have absolutely no idea how it got here. Where does $Bx$ come from? So, I start from the bottom. This goes a bit easier, but backtracking it is still not easy. This goes well up until 10/9-ish, again, I run into a wall. No ideas on how to get to the following statement, let alone to 1.
My question is this: can someone guide me through this deduction, with the simplest of explanation?
This is a long comment ...
The above proof is "complicated" and difficult to grasp because the axiomatic (or Hilbert-style) proof-system is very "opaque", in terms of euristic (finding how to build up the required proof).
Natural deduction is far better for this.
A possible way to "simplify" the search of a proof in a case like that above, which is basically a "propositional" proof (the only "quantifier" rule is invoked in the last step), is to "enlarge" the set of rules available.
How ? Starting from the propositional axioms a)-c) and proving their completeness for the tautologies, i.e.proving the meta-theorem which states that all tautologies are provable from the above axioms with modus ponens.
In this way, we may use in our proofs every instance of a tautology.
Assuming having done this, we may build another proof of the theorem using the following tautologies :
and :
and :
Now for the proof.
(1) Instantiate $TAUT_1$ with $Ax$ in place of $\varphi$ and $Bx$ in place of $\psi$ :
(2) Instantiate $TAUT_2$ with $(Ax \rightarrow Bx)$ in place of $\sigma$ and $(Bx \rightarrow Ax)$ in place of $\tau$ :
(3) Assume :
(4) $\lnot (Ax \rightarrow Bx) \vdash [ (Ax \rightarrow Bx)\lor (Bx \rightarrow Ax) ] \rightarrow (Bx \rightarrow Ax)$ --- from 2) and 3) by modus ponens
(5) $\lnot (Ax \rightarrow Bx) \vdash (Bx \rightarrow Ax)$ --- from 1) and 4) by modus ponens
(6) Instantiate $TAUT_3$ with $Bx$ in place of $\varphi$ and $Ax$ in place of $\psi$ :
(7) $\lnot (Ax \rightarrow Bx) \vdash (\lnot Ax \rightarrow \lnot Bx)$ --- from 5) and 6) by modus ponens
(8) $\vdash \lnot (Ax \rightarrow Bx) \rightarrow (\lnot Ax \rightarrow \lnot Bx)$ --- from 7) by Deduction Theorem.
Now the "hard" work is done.
We have only to apply the Generalization Theorem :
with $\Gamma = \emptyset$, to conclude from 8) :