I need some help proving the following poposition:
$\forall m,n \in \mathbb{N}\;\text{odd}(m^2+n^2) \implies \text{odd}((m+n)^2)$
Since $\text{odd}$ can be defined as:
$\text{odd}(x): \exists k \in \mathbb{Z}\; x = 2k+1$
I can write the above statement as:
$\exists k_1 \in \mathbb{Z} \; m^2-n^2 = 2k_1+1 \implies \exists k_2 \in \mathbb{Z}\; (m+n)^2=2k_2+1$
After I get to this, I'm totally stuck. To prove this, I think I need to somehow write that $m^2-n^2$ can be written in the form $2k+1$, but using $(m+n)^2$. Is this the write thinking? If so, how would I go about doing that?
Hints: