I need some help proving the following proposition:
$\text{odd}(m^2-n^2)\implies \text{odd}((m+n)^2)$
Since odd can be defined as:
$\text{odd}(x):\exists k \in \mathbb{Z} \; x=2k+1$
I can write the above statement as:
$\exists k \in \mathbb{Z}\;m^2-n^2=2k+1\implies\exists k\in\mathbb{Z}\;(m+n)^2=2k+1$
I can write the right side $(m+n)^2$ as $m^2+n^2+2mn$ which looks kind of similar to the left side, but with opposite signs and a $2mn$ on the end.
Can I say that since $m^2-n^2$ is odd, then $m^2+n^2$ is also odd? And then since $2mn$ is always going to be even, that $m^2+n^2 + 2mn$ is Odd $+$ Even which is Odd?
$(m+n)^2=m^2+n^2+2mn=m^2-n^2+2(n^2+mn)$