Theorem: $\sqrt{2}$ is irrational
Proof (By contradiction): Assume, on the contrary that $\sqrt{2}$ is rational Then there are natural numbers $p$ and $q$, with no common factors, such that $\sqrt{2} = \frac{p}{q}$
Squaring: $2 = \frac{p^2}{q^2}$
Rearranging: $2q^2 = p^2$
So $p^2$ is even ( it is equal to twice something $ \to 2 \times q^2$ ), Hence $p$ is even.
(Why?): Because the square of an even number is even, and the square of an odd number is odd. So the only way to get the square of a number to be even is if the number is even
So $p$ is $2r$ for some $r$
Substituting for $p$: $ 2q^2 = 2r^2 = 4r^2 $
Cancelling $2$: $ q^2 = 2r^2$
So $q^2$ is even ( it is equal to twice something $\to 2 \times r^2$ ), Hence $q$ is even (Reason: See Why?)
Deduction: $p$ is even, $q$ is even...
Conclusion:
if both $p$ and $q$ are even, then they have $2$ as a common factor; but by the original assumption: ...Then there are natural numbers p and q, with no common factors, this shows that $p$ and $q$ cannot have a common factor.
Since this conclusion does not agree with the assumption, this means that $\sqrt{2}$ is irrational. QED
I have a couple questions about the proof:
If I have an even number $N$, then isn't it possible to factor this number until it is odd? Then wouldn't this mean that although $p$ and $q$ are even, they can be factored until no more factors are possible?
Is it correct to assume that any rational number can be expressed as the quotient of $2$ other numbers who have no common factors?
Yes, you could instead (uniquely!) write $\,p = 2^j a\,$ and $\,q = 2^k b\,$ for $\,a,b\,$ odd and then deduce a contradiction by comparing the number of factors of $2,\,$ viz. $\,p^2\,$ has an even number of $2$'s but $\,2q^2\,$ has an odd number of $2$'s, a contradiction. This method uses only the very easily proved existence and uniqueness of $2$-factorizations, i.e. representations of the form $\,2^j n,\,$ with $\,n\,$ odd (versus the much more powerful, and much more difficult to prove Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic = existence and uniqueness of arbitrary prime factorizations).
As for your second question, yes, every fraction $\,A/B\,$ can be written with coprime numerator and denominator $\,a/b\,$ simply by cancelling their gcd $\,c,\,$ i.e. $\,A/B = ca/cb = a/b.\,$ By the maximality ("greatest") property of the gcd it follows that $\,d =\gcd(a,b) = 1,\,$ else $\,cd\,$ would be a common divisor of $\,A,B\,$ larger than the greatest common divisor $\,c=\gcd(A,B),\,$ contradiction. However, as above, it suffices to cancel only common factors of $\,2,\,$ so no knowledge of gcds is required.