I am considering a function, $\exp(x)$ such that
- $\frac{d}{dx}\exp(x)=\exp(x)$
- $\exp(0)=1$
From these two I am trying to prove that such a function would have properties reminiscent of powers, specifically that $\exp(u+v)=\exp(u)\exp(v)$
The derivation I am looking at is here:
However I am very confused as to what the step is where $w'$ has been introduced. I don't understand why $exp(u)$ suddenly appears in the limits of the second integral. Any help woould be much appreciated. I have tried looking up dummy variables online and various searches about the exponential function, but I couldn't find anything about this.

That's because $$w=1 \Leftrightarrow w'=\exp(u)$$ $$ w=\exp(v) \Leftrightarrow w'=\exp(u) \cdot \exp(v)$$ You just need to change the integration bounds after making the substitution.