We have the integral :
$$\int_{0}^{\infty}\log\left(1+\frac{s^{2}}{4\pi^{2}} \log(1+ix)\right ) e^{-2\pi nx}dx$$
Where $s$ is a complex parameter, and $n$ is a positive integer. The integral converges by virtue of the exponential factor. I tried to deform the path of integration such that we avoid the branch cut(s) of the logarithm. But here is where i was stuck, the internal complex $\log$ makes it confusing to do so !
EDIT
The integral is equivalent to : $$\frac{1}{2\pi n}\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{e^{2\pi i nx}}{(1+x)\left(\frac{4\pi^{2}}{s^{2}}+\log(1+x) \right )}dx$$ Setting $y=\log(1+x)$, it's also equivalent to : $$\frac{1}{2\pi n}\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{\exp[{2\pi i n \left(e^{y}-1 \right )]}}{\left(\frac{4\pi^{2}}{s^{2}}+y \right )}dy$$
I am not able to comment due to lack of reputation, but I did manage to split up the imaginary and real components (which is something you seem interested in):
$$ \int^\infty_0 \frac{1}{2}\log\left(\left(1+\frac{s^2\log\left(x^2+1\right)}{8\pi^2}\right)^2+\frac{s^4\arctan\left(x\right)^2}{16\pi^4}\right)\text{e}^{-2\pi n x}+i\arctan\left(\frac{s^2\arctan\left(x\right)}{4\pi^2\left(1+\frac{s^2\log\left(x^2+1\right)}{8\pi^2}\right)}\right)\text{e}^{-2\pi n x}\,\text{d}x $$
Although the real term will still have some imaginary components after integration (from the log functions).