Using Holder inequality, is it correct to express $$\parallel \int\limits_0^t f(s)g(s)ds \parallel ^p \leq T^{p-1}\int \limits_0^t\parallel f(s)\parallel^pds\int \limits_0^t\parallel g(s)\parallel^pds $$
2026-03-26 19:15:51.1774552551
Holder inequality for integrals
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No. Take $f(s)=g(s)=1$, $p=1$ and $t=1/2$.