"Can there exist a $C^2$ function $f(x,y)$ with $f_x = 2x-5y$ and $f_y=4x+y$"?
Given this question, am I simply to take the second derivative of these functions to prove the equivalence of the mixed partial derivative?
"Can there exist a $C^2$ function $f(x,y)$ with $f_x = 2x-5y$ and $f_y=4x+y$"?
Given this question, am I simply to take the second derivative of these functions to prove the equivalence of the mixed partial derivative?
On
Given that in the mixed partial derivative the order in which you take the derivatives is not important, you could try do compute $f_{xy}=\frac{f_x}{\partial y}$ and $f_{yx}=\frac{f_y}{\partial y}$ and compare them. If they are indeed equal then $f_x$ and $f_y$ may come from the same primitive.
With $f_x = 2x-5y$ and $f_y= 4x+y$, there is no $C^{2}$ function for which these relations hold.
Simply check, $f_{xy} = -5$ and $f_{yx}=4$ which are different.