The question is given below:
My trial is: Let $\lambda $ be an eigenvalue of $\alpha,$ then $$ \alpha ( \left[ {\begin{array}{cc} a \\ b \\ c \\ d \\ \end{array} } \right] ) = \lambda \left[ {\begin{array}{cc} a \\ b \\ c \\ d \\ \end{array} } \right] = \left[ {\begin{array}{cc} \lambda a \\ \lambda b \\ \lambda c \\ \lambda d \end{array} } \right] $$
$$i.e. \left[ {\begin{array}{cc} b + c \\ c \\ 0 \\ 0 \\ \end{array} } \right] = \left[ {\begin{array}{cc} \lambda a \\ \lambda b \\ \lambda c \\ \lambda d \end{array} } \right] \rightarrow (1.)$$
Now, for $\left[ {\begin{array}{cc} a \\ b \\ c \\ d \\ \end{array} } \right] $ to be an eigenvector, at least one of $a, b, c, d$ must be nonzero. WLOG, let $a \neq 0.$ Therefore from $(1.)$ we have $$\lambda = \frac {b + c}{a}, \lambda b = c \quad i.e. \quad b^2 = c(a-b), \lambda c = 0 \quad i.e. c^2 = (-bc).$$ but then what?
Could anyone help me in solving this, please?

From (1.), we have $\lambda c=0$ and $\lambda d=0$, so $\lambda=0$ is one solution.
Otherwise, $c=0$ and $d=0$, and $c=\lambda b$, so $\lambda=0$ or $b=0$.
But if $c=d=b=0$, then $\lambda a=b+c=0$, so $a=0$ too, so there are no eigenvalues besides $\lambda=0$.