How Can I Make This Approximation?

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I've been tasked with showing that

$\frac{\delta m}{m_0}$~$\frac{1}{2}(\frac{v}{c}))^2$

From $\frac{m}{m_0}$$=$$1$$-$$(-\frac{1}{2}(\frac{v}{c}))^2$

Assuming v is small.

Im not sure what approximation I am supposed to make to show this. And that is all I am given. My intuition says some approximation where v is much much small than c allows me to do this but I am not sure where to go from there.

Any nudge in the right direction is appreciated!