How can I use induction to prove that this recursive definition is correct?
$f(n)=4n-2$ for $n≥1$
Recursive definition:
1) $f(1)=2$
2) $f(n)=f(n-1)+4$
Now I have to use induction to prove that the recursive definition is correct but I don't know how to do it since $f(n)$ is not equal to anything.
Let $f$ be defined as in your question and let $g$ be defined recursively by $g(1)=2$ and $g(n)=g(n-1)+4$.
Then it is enough to prove by induction that $g(n)=f(n)$ for positive integers.
The base case is just the observation that $g(1)=2=f(1)$.
Now the induction step:
If $g(n)=f(n)=4n-2$ then $g(n+1)=g(n)+4=4n-2+4=4n+2=f(n+1)$.