I consider $(P \rightarrow Q) \vee (Q \rightarrow P)$, that is $(\neg P \vee Q) \vee (\neg Q \vee P)$ and so $\neg P \vee Q \vee \neg Q \vee P$, which is a tautology.
It seems strange to me that, given two arbitrary formulas, necessarily one implies the other or viceversa. (I am thinking for example of this case: P stands for 'Ann loves animals' and Q 'Ann is a student')
Where is my mistake? Perhaps in the interpretation of $P$ and $Q$?
Any clarification will be much appreciated.
The proposition $(P \rightarrow Q) \vee (Q \rightarrow P)$ is always true. This does not mean that either $P \rightarrow Q$ is always true or $Q \rightarrow P$ is always true. Isn't that what you said?