How can $(\lnot q \lor r)$ become $(p \to r)$ in this context?

Question

Question

Show that $(p\lor q)\rightarrow r\equiv(p\rightarrow r)\land(p\rightarrow r)$

Given solution

While I was taught that $(p\rightarrow r)\equiv( \neg p\lor r)$ which can be easily proven by a truth table...

but how is the last 2 statements in the given solution be possible? How is it possible that $(\neg q\lor r)$ transformed into $(p\rightarrow r)$? Is this a typo?

Answer 1

It's a typo. See here for the tableau of the intended statement