$$\int_0^bf(x)(b-x)\,dx=\int_0^b\left(\int _0^xf(t)\,dt\right)\,dx$$
I can't understand how this property can be proven but it has held true for everything I have tried. How do you even approach this? I have tried substitution but that gets you no where.
Define functions $F$ and $G$ as follows: $$F(b):=\int_0^b f(x)(b-x)\,dx=b \int_0^b f(x)\,dx - \int_0^b xf(x)\,dx \\ G(b):=\int_0^b \left( \int_0^x f(t)\,dt \right) dx.$$ Then, differentiating "with respect to $b$", and using the product rule together with the FTC we have that $$F'(b)=1 \cdot \int_0^b f(x)\,dx + b \cdot f(b) - bf(b) = \int_0^b f(x)\,dx$$ and that $$G'(b)=\int_0^b f(t)\,dt$$ for all $b$. This means that $F' = G'$, and then $F=G+c$ for some constant $c$.
Since $F(0)=G(0)=0$, we conclude that $c=0$, and therefore $F = G$, meaning that $F(b)=G(b)$ for all $b$, as desired.