How can we prove $(1)$?
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left({\phi^2+\gamma\over n+1}-{\phi+\gamma\over n}-\ln{n+1\over n}\right)=-\phi^2\tag1$$
$\phi$;Golden ratio
$\gamma$;Euler's constant
an attempt:
Using $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left({1\over n}-\ln{n+1\over n}\right)=\gamma\tag2$$
$(2)-(1)$
$$(\gamma+\phi^2)\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left({1\over n}-{1\over n+1}\right)=\gamma+\phi^2\tag3$$
Telescope sum $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left({1\over n}-{1\over n+1}\right)=1\tag4$$
This is not a proof. Any help.
$$ \begin{align} \phi^2 &= \phi+1 \\[4mm] \color{red}{S} &= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(\frac{\phi^2+\gamma}{n+1}-\frac{\phi+\gamma}{n}-\log{\frac{n+1}{n}}\right) \\[2mm] &= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(\frac{\phi^2+\gamma}{n+1}-\frac{\phi\color{red}{+1}+\gamma\color{red}{-1}}{n}-\log{\frac{n+1}{n}}\right) \\[2mm] &= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(\frac{\phi^2+\gamma}{n+1}-\frac{\phi^2+\gamma}{n}+\frac{1}{n}-\log{\frac{n+1}{n}}\right) \\[2mm] &= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(\frac{\phi^2+\gamma}{n+1}-\frac{\phi^2+\gamma}{n}\right)+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(\frac{1}{n}-\log{\frac{n+1}{n}}\right) \\[2mm] &= -\left(\phi^2+\gamma\right)\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(\frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{n+1}\right)+\,\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(\frac{1}{n}-\log{\frac{n+1}{n}}\right) \\[2mm] &= -\phi^2-\gamma+\gamma=\color{red}{-\phi^2} \end{align} $$