Consider the RDE $$X_t = \int_0^t e^{cW_s}ds$$ where $c>0$ and $W_t$ is Wiener process. Can this integral be solved, i.e. can Wiener process be integrated w.r.t. time?
Now consider the integral $$X_t = \int_0^t sin(s)dB_s.$$ This integral cannot be further solved, is this correct?

The correct way to write this equation is either $$ X_t=\int_0^te^{cW_\color{red}{s}}\,d\color{red}{s} $$ or -in differential form- $$ dX_t=e^{cW_t}\,dt\,. $$ It looks like you mixed up both.
This integral is well defined even as a Riemann integral because for each $\omega$ the path $t\mapsto W_t(\omega)$ is continuous.
It cannot be solved like we solve $$ \int_0^te^{cs}\,ds=\frac{e^{ct}-1}{c}\, $$ but this has not stopped generations of mathematicians to work with such integrals in the theory of stochastic differential equations or financial mathematics.
For example: Since Black & Scholes it is popular to model a stock price essentially by $$ S_t=S_0e^{cW_t-c^2t/2}\,. $$ Then $$ X_t=\frac{1}{t}\int_0^tS_s\,ds $$ describes the average stock price which is the underlying of an Asian option.