If you calculate the first three sums, a pattern becomes clear revealing the closed form which is easily proven by induction:
$$\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{k}{(k+1)!} = \frac{(n+1)!-1}{(n+1)!}$$
I’ve been trying to find the closed form without calculating the first few sums, but failed in doing so. I wonder if there is a way to find the closed form in advance or to lead it back to the closed form of some other well-known series. Is there maybe a combinatorial way to think about it?
Using telescoping sum:
$$\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{k}{(k+1)!} =\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{k+1-1}{(k+1)!}=\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{k!}- \frac{1}{(k+1)!}=1-\frac{1}{(n+1)!}$$