a) For $(s_{n})_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$, $s_{n}=\sum_{j=1}^{n}\frac{3(-1)^j+1}{2j}$
b) For $(a_{n})_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$, $a_{n}\in\mathbb{R}$, and assume that for all $n\geq N$, $N \in \mathbb{N}$ fixed, we have $|a_{n}-a_{n+1}|<3^{-n}$.
Cheers.
a) For $(s_{n})_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$, $s_{n}=\sum_{j=1}^{n}\frac{3(-1)^j+1}{2j}$
b) For $(a_{n})_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$, $a_{n}\in\mathbb{R}$, and assume that for all $n\geq N$, $N \in \mathbb{N}$ fixed, we have $|a_{n}-a_{n+1}|<3^{-n}$.
Cheers.
HINT: a) try to use the Leibniz criterion on this sum. If you show that the sum converges, then $(s_n)_n$ is cauchy. b) Try to make a telescoping series and make use of the triangle inequality
Update: I took up this question again because it came back to my mind and I were sceptic about (a). I think this one is little delicate: If $(s_n)_n$ was really cauchy, then the sequence would converge. But consider the following $$s_n=\sum_{j=1}^n \frac{3(-1)^j+1}{2j} = \sum_{j=1}^n \frac{(-1)^j}{j} +\frac{(-1)^j+1}{2j}.$$ If $s_n$ converges, then (since $\sum_{j=1}^n \frac{(-1)^j}{j}$ converges with Leibniz) the series $\sum_{j=1}^n \frac{(-1)^j+1}{2j}$ would converge, too. But this is false because this part is more or less a harmonic series. Therefore, $(s_n)_n$ is not cauchy.