Recently I am trying to understand Dr. Niven's proof that $\pi$ is an irrational number.
In the beginning of his proof, he constructed a polynomial -- $f(x) = \frac{x^{n}(a - bx)^{n}}{n!}$.
So I wondered that why did he constructed it this way?
Recently I am trying to understand Dr. Niven's proof that $\pi$ is an irrational number.
In the beginning of his proof, he constructed a polynomial -- $f(x) = \frac{x^{n}(a - bx)^{n}}{n!}$.
So I wondered that why did he constructed it this way?
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