The distributive law over a disjunction is given to be: $ P \vee (Q \wedge R) \equiv (P \vee Q) \wedge (P \vee R) $
I want an intuitive understanding of this statement, in order to do I tend to write these logical statements out in words and use concrete examples.
Statements
$P=$ I will eat chocolate ice cream
$Q=$ I will eat vanilla ice cream
$R=$ I will eat strawberry
Stating $ P \vee (Q \wedge R)$ in words:
$ P \vee (Q \wedge R)$ = EITHER [I will eat chocolate ice cream] AND/OR [BOTH vanilla and strawberry ice cream].
Thus there are three distinct possibilities that will ensure this statement is true:
- $P$: I will eat chocolate ice cream
- $(Q\wedge R)$: I wont eat chocolate ice cream but I will eat BOTH vanilla and strawberry ice cream.
- $P \wedge (Q \wedge R)$: That you eat all three, i.e. [I will eat chocolate ice cream] AND [BOTH vanilla AND strawberry ice cream].
I believe these have exhausted the possibilities of what makes this statement true.
Stating $(P \vee Q) \wedge (P \vee R) $ in words:
[EITHER I will eat chocolate OR vanilla ice] AND [EITHER I will eat chocolate or strawberry ice cream]
That was very inelegantly phrased, and from this phrasing I can't see from that why the two statements are equivalent. I would appreciate it greatly if someone could write $(P \vee Q) \wedge (P \vee R) $ in words (using the above statements) conducive to an intuitive understanding, that will allow me to see the parallels to its equivalent statement $ P \vee (Q \wedge R)$.
EDIT: Truth Table
I seem to have noticed something in the truth table that is confusing me:
\begin{array} \hline P &Q &R &(Q \wedge R) & (P \vee Q) &(P\vee R) &P \vee (Q \wedge R) &(P \vee Q) \wedge (P \vee R)\\ \hline F &F &F &F &F &F &F &F \\ \hline F &F &T &F &F &T &F &F\\ \hline F &T &T &T &T &T &T &T\\ \hline F &T &F &F &T &F &F &F \\ \hline T &F &T &F &T &T &T &T\\ \hline T &F &F &F &T &T &T &T \\ \hline T &T &F &F &T &T &T &T \\ \hline T &T &T &T &T &T &T &T \\ \end{array}
From the truth table it seems that both statements are equivalent because one is true when the other is true. However it seems certain outcomes are only exclusive to one statement. If both statements are equal how can they have different outcomes?
If you're confused here are the 5 instances when both these statements are true and their outcomes:
When $P=$False, $Q=$True, $R=$True
- $P \vee (Q \wedge R)$: $(Q \wedge R)$
- $(P \vee Q) \wedge (P \vee R)$: $(Q \wedge R)$
When $P=$True, $Q=$False, $R=$True
- $P \vee (Q \wedge R)$: $P$
- $(P \vee Q) \wedge (P \vee R)$: $P \wedge (P \wedge R)= P \wedge R$
When $P=$True, $Q=$False, $R=$False
- $P \vee (Q \wedge R)$: $P$
- $(P \vee Q) \wedge (P \vee R)$: $P \wedge P = P$
When $P=$True, $Q=$True, $R=$False
- $P \vee (Q \wedge R)$: $P$
- $(P \vee Q) \wedge (P \vee R)$: $(P \vee Q) \wedge P= P \wedge Q$
When $P=$True, $Q=$True, $R=$True
- $P \vee (Q \wedge R)$: $P \wedge Q \wedge R$
- $(P \vee Q) \wedge (P \vee R)$: $P \wedge Q \wedge R$
My Questions
- How do I phrase $(P \vee Q) \wedge (P \vee R) $ as a sentence, that will allow me to see how this statement is similar to $P \vee (Q \wedge R)$?
- How is $ P \vee (Q \wedge R) \equiv (P \vee Q) \wedge (P \vee R) $ when they both have distinctly different outcomes (as seen above)?
EDIT: I've just gone through the book and it seems i'm also stumped by the absorption law.
- How does $P \vee (P \wedge Q) \equiv P$, using my example this is equivalent to saying: Either I will eat chocolate OR/"OR BOTH" [chocolate and vanilla ice cream] is the same as saying I will eat chocolate ice cream.
- How does $P \wedge (P \vee Q) \equiv P$, using my example this is equivalent to saying: I will eat chocolate ice cream AND [chocolate OR/"OR BOTH" vanilla ice cream] is the same as saying I will eat chocolate ice cream.
I'll either eat chocolate or vanilla and either chocolate or strawberry. This is the same as eating chocolate or both vanilla and strawberry.