Is the statement
[(P → (Q ∧ ¬R)) ∧ (¬S → (P ∨ ¬V )) ∧ R ∧ V] → S
a tautology? If so, give a formal proof that it is without using a truth table. I have no idea how to solve this problem. Can anyone help me?
(P→(Q∧¬R))∧(¬S→(P∨¬V))∧R∧V
(¬P∨(Q∧¬R))∧((¬S∧¬P)→¬V)∧R∧V
((¬P∨Q)∧(¬P∨¬R))∧(¬(S∨P)→¬V)∧R∧V
((¬P∨Q)∧(¬P∨¬R))∧(V→(S∨P))∧R∧V
(¬P∨Q)∧(¬P∨¬R))∧(¬V∨(S∨P))∧R∧V
Thank you in advance.
[(P → (Q ∧ ¬R)) ∧ (¬S → (P ∨ ¬V )) ∧ R ∧ V] → S (0)
The easiest way to show that (0) is a tautology without using a truth table or Karnough map, is with a proof tree.
To use this method, we will first assume that (0) is false, and derive a contradiction from that assumption. Since our assumption led to a contradiction, it must have been wrong, so (0) must not be false, that is, (0) is a tautology.
In the following proof tree, branches will be marked with an X when a contradiction is arrived at. The aim is to close every branch, so that there is no way for the premises to be true.
As your attempt at the question seems to follow a different proof method, I have answered this question a different way bellow. Here I re-write (0) a number of different ways until it simplifiers to ($\lnot S)\lor S$, as you seemed to be doing.