I have the expression:
$$\vec{a}-(\vec{v}\cdot \vec{a})\vec{v}$$
Is it possible to do this:
$$\vec{a}(1-\vec{v}\cdot\vec{v})$$
I doubt it because when I continue my problem I don't result in the right answer. I can provide the full context if needed.
The full context:
The relativistic expression for the momentum of a massive particle is
$$\vec{p}=\gamma m \vec{v}$$
and I need to derive an expression for the 3-force in terms of the 3-acceleration $\vec{a}$ and $\vec{\beta}=\frac{\vec{v}}{c}$, then use that expression to show that:
$$\gamma m \vec{a}=\vec{F}-\vec{\beta}(\vec{\beta}\cdot \vec{F})$$
So for the first part, I found the expression like this:
$$\vec{F}=\frac{d\vec{p}}{dt}=\gamma m\vec{a}+(-\frac{1}{2}(1-\frac{v^2}{c^2})^{-3/2}(\frac{-2\vec{v}}{c}\frac{\vec{a}}{c}))m\vec{v}$$
$$=\gamma m \vec{a}(1+\beta ^2 \gamma ^2)$$
For the second part, I just went step by step from the inside to the outside of $\vec{F}-\vec{\beta}(\vec{\beta}\cdot \vec{F})$, which resulted in:
$$\vec{F}-\vec{\beta}(\vec{\beta}\cdot \vec{F})=\gamma m \vec{a}(1+\beta^2\gamma^2)-\frac{\gamma m}{c}(1+\beta^2\gamma^2)(\vec{v}\cdot\vec{a})\vec{v}$$
It was at this point that I wanted to "pull out" the $\vec{a}$ to continue the problem.
Define the arrays
$$ v = \left(\begin{array}{c}v_1 \\ v_2 \\ \vdots \end{array}\right) ~~~\mbox{and}~~~ v\cdot = (v_1, v_2, \cdots) $$
note that $x\cdot y$ is the usual inner product. In this case
$$ a - (v\cdot a)a = a - v(v\cdot a) = a - vv\cdot a = (\Bbb{1} - vv\cdot)a $$