For a function $f_a(x)=e^{-a|x|}$ , where $a>0$ I have found that the fourier transform of it is as follows, i know this is correct. $\def\F{\mathcal F}$ \begin{align*} \F(f_a)(s) &= \sqrt{\frac 2\pi} \frac a{a^2 + s^2} \end{align*}
How do I use this to show
$\begin{align*} \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac 1{(a^2+s^2)(b^2+s^2)} ds=\frac {\pi}{ab(a+b)} \end{align*}$
My attempts have been useless, am I supposed to use Parceval's relation or maybe the inversion formula for fourier transforms? I really have no idea.
Parseval's theorem is definitely how you want to go about this. Parseval states that
$$\langle g,h\rangle = \langle\mathcal{F}g,\mathcal{F}h\rangle.$$
In your case, $g = \sqrt{\frac{\pi}{2}}\frac{1}{a}f_a$ and $h = \sqrt{\frac{\pi}{2}}\frac{1}{b}f_b$ since we know that $\mathcal{F}g = \frac{1}{a^2+s^2}$ and similarly for $h$. Hence by Parseval (and noting that all of the functions are real)
$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(a^2+s^2)(b^2+s^2)}\,ds = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \left(\sqrt{\frac{\pi}{2}}\frac{1}{a}f_a(t)\right)\left(\sqrt{\frac{\pi}{2}}\frac{1}{b}f_b(t)\right)\,dt.$$
Or equivalently,
$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(a^2+s^2)(b^2+s^2)}\,ds = \frac{\pi}{2ab} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-(a+b)|t|}\,dt.$$
Can you take it from here? (Hint: use evenness of $e^{-c|t|}$.)