How do we show that the $(1-\alpha)100\%$ confidence interval $(\bar{Y}-z_{\alpha-\alpha_1} \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}, \bar{Y}+z_{\alpha_1} \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}})$ for the unknown normal mean $\mu$ has a minimal expected length when it is symmetric, that is, $\alpha_1 =\frac{\alpha}{2}$
Intuitively the middle has the largest percentages. But how do we formally prove it?
I think you have a typo: the $\sigma/\sqrt{n}$ should multiply the quantile, and not be in the subscripts.
You basically want to choose $\alpha_1$ to minimize $z_{\alpha - \alpha_1} + z_{\alpha_1}$. So now our problem is purely about the standard normal distribution.
Without loss of generality suppose $\alpha_1 < \alpha/2$. (The other case $\alpha_1 < \alpha/2$ can be handled symmetrically.) It suffices to show $z_{\alpha_1} - z_{\alpha/2} \ge z_{\alpha/2} - z_{\alpha-\alpha_1}$.
By definition, \begin{align} \int_{z_{\alpha/2}}^{z_{\alpha_1}} \phi(t) \mathop{dt} = \frac{\alpha}{2} - \alpha_1 =\int_{z_{\alpha-\alpha_1}}^{z_{\alpha/2}} \phi(t) \mathop{dt}. \end{align}
Since $0 < z_{\alpha-\alpha_1} < z_{\alpha/2} < z_{\alpha_1}$, we know $\phi$ is strictly decreasing in the range of these integrals. Specifically, we know $\phi(t) < \phi(z_{\alpha/2})$ for $t$ in the range of the first integral, and $\phi(t) > \phi(z_{\alpha/2})$ in the range of the second integral. Thus $$(z_{\alpha_1} - z_{\alpha/2})\cdot \phi(z_{\alpha/2}) > \int_{z_{\alpha/2}}^{z_{\alpha_1}} \phi(t) \mathop{dt} =\int_{z_{\alpha-\alpha_1}}^{z_{\alpha/2}} \phi(t) \mathop{dt} > (z_{\alpha/2} - z_{\alpha- \alpha_1}) \cdot \phi(z_{\alpha/2}),$$ yielding the desired inequality $z_{\alpha_1} - z_{\alpha/2} > z_{\alpha/2} - z_{\alpha-\alpha_1}$.