I need to use the Fourier Transform to confirm that this result is true:
$$\int_0^\infty2te^{-at}*\cos(t)\,dt=2(a^2-1)/((a^2-1)^2+4a^2)$$
How can I do so? I'm using fourier transform identities such as $x(t)*\cos(w_0t)$ where $x(t)=2*t*e^{-at}$, but the end result contains terms of $\omega$. What am I supposed to do with omega and how do I get rid of it to make it look like that?
Hint. By using a Laplace Transform table one has
$$ \mathscr{L}(\cos t) = \int_0^\infty e^{-at}\cdot\cos(t)\,dt=\dfrac{a}{a^2 + 1} \tag 1$$
differentiating both sides of $(1)$ with respect to $a$ yields
$$\mathscr{L}(t \cos t) = \int_0^\infty t\:e^{-at}\cdot\cos(t)\,dt=\dfrac{a^2-1}{(a^2 + 1)^2} \tag 2$$
which gives the announced result since $(a^2+1)^2=(a^2-1)^2+4a^2$.