Let $\mathbb{F}=\left(F,+_F,\cdot_F\right)$ be a field and $\mathbb{V}=\left(V,\mathbb{F},+,\cdot\right)$ be a vector space. Let $\langle\cdot,\cdot\rangle : V \times V \to F$ be an inner product. If $F \neq \mathbb{R},$ then how can we say that the $\left\Vert x \right\Vert = \sqrt{\langle x,x \rangle}$ is a valid vector norm$?$ Because a vector norm is a map $\left\Vert\cdot\right\Vert : V \to \mathbb{R}$.
Should we modify the definition of the induced norm to be $\left\Vert x \right\Vert = \sqrt{\left|\langle x,x \rangle\right|},$ where $\left|\cdot\right| : F \to \mathbb{R}$ is a pre-fixed norm$?$
For those who say that "an inner product induces a norm" define the term "inner product" to apply specifically to the case in which $\Bbb F \in \{\Bbb R,\Bbb C\}$. In those cases, the definition $\|x\| = \sqrt{\langle x, x \rangle}$ is perfectly fine.
With this convention, a bilinear map $V \times V \to \Bbb F$ would be called a "scalar product" or a "bilinear form" as opposed to an "inner product".