So I'm working on some notes and I found this inequality that I really can't make sense of it. This is what is going on:
Let $u \in W_0^{1,2}$ and let $f \in L^2$ both on some $\Omega \subseteq \mathbb{R}^n$ open and bounded. If $$ \int |\nabla u|^2 \leq \int |fu|$$ then $$ \|\nabla u \|_{L^2}^2=\int |\nabla u|^2 \leq (Holder) \leq \|f\|_{L^2} \| u \|_{L^2} \leq (Poincaré) \leq C \|f\|_{L^2} \| \nabla u \|_{L^2}$$ for some constant C. For some reason from this we get $$ \| u \|_{W_0^{1,2}}^2 \leq C \|f \| \| u \|_{W_0^{1,2}}$$ but I don't get why there is this implication.
Attempt: We know by definition that $\| u \|_{W^{1,2}} = \| u \|_{L^2} + \| \nabla u \|_{L^2}$. Also from $$ \|\nabla u \|_{L^2}^2 \leq C \|f\|_{L^2} \| \nabla u \|_{L^2}$$ we can add $\| u \|_{L^2}$ on both sides getting $$ \|u\|_{L^2} + \|\nabla u \|_{L^2}^2 \leq C \|f\|_{L^2} \| \nabla u \|_{L^2} + \| u \|_{L^2} \leq C \| u \|_{W_0^{1,2}} $$ but how do I get the $W_0^{1,2}$ norm squared? Thank you!
You have to use the Poincaré inequality again. This gives
$$\lVert u\rVert_{L^2}^2\le C_1\lVert \nabla u\rVert^2_{L^2}\le C_2\lVert f\rVert_{L^2}\lVert \nabla u\rVert_{L^2}, $$ so $\lVert u\rVert_{L^2}^2 + \lVert \nabla u\rVert^2_{L^2}\le C_3\lVert f\rVert_{L^2}\lVert \nabla u\rVert_{L^2}$, for some big enough constant $C_3>0$. This is the inequality you wanted.
Note that here I used the usual definition of $\|u\|_{W^{1,2}}$, which is $$\|u\|_{W^{1,2}}^2:=\|u\|_{L^2}^2 + \|\nabla u\|_{L^2}^2.$$ This produces a norm that is equivalent to the one you gave. This is readily seen using the elementary inequality $$ \left( x^2+y^2\right)^{1/2}\le \lvert x \rvert + \lvert y\rvert \le \sqrt{2}\left( x^2+y^2\right)^{1/2}.$$ This norm has also the great benefit of being Hilbertian.