Let's say I have two functions $f: A \to B$ and $g: A \to B$. How exactly does one define equivalence between the two functions/mappings?
If $f(a \in A)$ = $g(a \in A)$, then does that imply $f =g$, or do we need stronger/extra conditions?
2026-03-30 03:36:18.1774841778
How does one define the equivalence of mappings between two sets?
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We have
$f=g$ iff $f(a)=g(a)$ for all $a \in A$