I know by definition that it converges uniformly if for any $\varepsilon>0$, there exist some number $\tau_0$ such that if $ \tau\ge\tau_0 $ then $$\left| \int_{\tau}^{\infty}e^{-st}f(t)dt \right| < \epsilon $$ for all $s$ in some complex domain.
But how can I proceed to show that the Laplace transform of $e^t$ converges uniformly?
If you take $f(t) = e^t$ then your expression becomes $$\left|\int_{\tau}^{\infty} e^{(-t(s+1))} dt\right|\leq \int_{\tau}^{\infty} \left| e^{(-t\,Re(s+1))}\right| dt = \int_{\tau}^{\infty} e^{(-t\,Re(s+1))}dt.$$
Now you find convergence on the domain $\{s\in\mathbb{C}|Re(s)>-1\}$ by convergence of the exponential integral.