The binomial distribution can be interpreted as $n$ independent and identically Bernoulli "trials". If $X_1, X_2, \dots, X_n$ is a sample from a Bernoulli distribution, how is that different from a binomial distribution?
2026-04-01 11:15:41.1775042141
How is a sample from a Bernoulli distribution different from a binomial distribution?
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A binomial distribution occurs if you add them: $Y = X_1 + \ldots + X_n$. If you just leave them as is, they are a sample from a Bernoulli distribution.