How is $$\xi+2\alpha\eta<0$$ an 'obvious necessary condition' for the inequality
$$y^3+2y^2(1-2\alpha-\xi)+y(1-4\xi+8\alpha\xi)-2\xi-4\alpha\eta >0$$ to be satisfied for positive $y$ (as claimed in this passage of an article)?
Someone please help me understand. I want to use the author's method, but I just don't see how the last coefficient affects the inequality.
Well, the text says that the statement shall hold true for all positive $y$. If you let $y \to 0$ you get exactly the condition.
More formally, for some arbitrarily small $y = \epsilon > 0$ we have, to order $\cal{O}(\epsilon)$, that $$y^3+2y^2(1-2\alpha-\xi)+y(1-4\xi+8\alpha\xi)-2\xi-4\alpha\eta \\ \to \epsilon(1-4\xi+8\alpha\xi)-2(\xi+2\alpha\eta) $$.
For this to remain positive, since the first term gets arbitrarily small, the second term needs to remain positive, which is the case if and only if $\xi+2\alpha\eta < 0$.