How Lebesgue integration solved the problem of a function being integrable but its limit is not integrable?

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My professor gave us the following form of Dirichlet function as an example of the problems we faced in Riemann integration:

$\{r_{n}\}$ enumeration $\mathbb{Q} \cap [0,1]$

$$ f_{n}(x) = \begin{cases} 1 & \quad x \in \{r_{1}, ... , r_{n}\} \\ 0 & \quad \text{otherwise}. \end{cases} $$

And he said that: each $f_{n}$ is integrable but its limit is not integrable.

My questions are:

1- why each $f_{n}$ is integrable but its limit is not integrable?

2- How did Lebesgue integration solve this problem?

Could anyone help me understand answers to these questions, please?

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  1. Each $f_n$ is integrable because you can check that each lower sum is equal to $0$ and that the upper sums can take (positive) values as small as you want. Therefore, the (Riemann) integral of $f$ is $0$. However, if $f$ is the limit, then every lower sum is $0$ and every upper sum is $1$. Therefore, $f$ is not Riemann-integrable.
  2. In the case of Lebesgue integration, $f$ is integrable, and its integral is $0$.