For two sets $M,N$ let $S(M,N)$ be the set of all bijective functions from $M$ to $N$.
A set $M$ has exactly $n\in \mathbb{N}_0$ elements.
Show that $S(M,M)$ has exactly $n!$ elements.
Induction is strongly suggested.
Now my basecase would be $n=0$.
That holds because there is exactly 1 unique bijective function between the empty set and itself.
But even here I have problems to write that rigorously.
Then the assumption would be: if $M$ has $n$ elements, $S(M,M)$ has $n!$ elements.
Then if $M$ has $(n+1)$ elements, $S(M,M)$ has $(n+1)!$ elements.
But I simply do not know how to write that as a formula that enables me to plug in my assumption. Can you help me?
Remember that $M$ and $N$ are finite sets, then the set of bijections between $M$ and $N$ is nonempty if and only if $|M| = |N| = n$.
So we only need to consider the case where $|M| = |N|$, and we proceed by induction in $n$, where $n = |M| = |N|$.
The base case is $n = 0$. There are a single bijection between $M$ and $N$, namely the function with empty domain and empty range. Since $0! = 1$, we are done here.
For the inductive step, assume that the theorem holds for $n$.
How many bijections are there between $M$ and $N$, if $|M| = |N| = n+1$? Choose an element $x$ in $M$. For each choice of $x$, a bijection $f$ between $M$ and $N$ will consists of associating $x$ with $f(x)$ and a bijection between $M \setminus \{ x \}$ and $N \setminus \{ f(x) \}$. Since $M \setminus \{ x \} = N \setminus \{ f(x) \} = n$, we know from the induction hypothesis that there are $n!$ such bijections. Since $x$ can be chosen in $n+1$ ways, there are $(n+1) \cdot n! = (n+1)!$ bijections between $M$ and $N$.