Question: $\int_{4}^{\infty}f(x)dx$ is an improper integral, where $$f(x)=\frac{3x+8}{x^4+7}$$
For the comparison test we have to find a comparison function, say $g(x)$ and
- for any $f(x)>g(x)$, if $f(x)$ converges, then $g(x)$ also converges;
- for any $f(x)<g(x)$, if $f(x)$ converges, we can't guarantee whether $g(x)$ converges or not.
For this question I have got $g(x)=\frac{1}{x^3}$, which converges but is smaller than the given $f(x)$.
Now, how can I determine its [f(x)] convergence from comparison test?
I read somewhere that in these cases I have to find a new value of $g(x)$ which converges and greater than $f(x)$ (which I am not sure how to find). Also, does that mean that the convergence or divergence will depend on the chosen value of $g(x)$?
We can refer indeed to limit comparison test for integrals, since eventually for some $0<\varepsilon<3$
$$\lim_{x\to \infty} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=\lim_{x\to \infty} \frac{3x^4+8x^3}{x^4+7} = 3 \iff (3-\varepsilon)g(x)\le f(x)\le (3+\varepsilon)g(x)$$
this allow to refer to direct comparison test with $(3+\varepsilon)g(x)$.
More in general, for improper integrals at infinity, with $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ (at least eventually) positive, the condition
$$\lim_{x\to \infty} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=L\in\mathbb R$$
suffices to claim that both related integrals diverges or converges and the argument also works for the extreme cases when $L=0$ with $g(x)$ convergent and when $L=\infty$ with $g(x)$ dinvergent.