Denote $f_n(x)=f \circ f ... \circ f(x)$, the $n$th power of composition multiplication of $f(x)$. Assume $f(x)$ is differentiable for any order. $f(1)=1$, $f^{'}(1)=p$, $f^{''}(1)=q$ Question: Get the expression of $f_n^{''}(1)$.
My solution is write $f_n(x)=f \circ f_{n-1}(x)$ and then do the first derivative: use chain rule we can get $$f_n(x)=f^{'}[f_{n-1}(x)]f_{n-1}^{'}(x)$$ Note that $f_n(1)=1$ for all $n$, plug in $1$ we have $f_n(1)=f^{'}(1)f_{n-1}^{'}(1)=pf_{n-1}^{'}(1)$. Use induction we have $f_n(1)=p^n$. Then we take second derivative of $f \circ f_{n-1}(x)$, we have $$f_n^{''}(x)=f^{''}[f_{n-1}(x)][f_{n-1}^{'}(x)]^2+f^{'}(f_{n-1}(x))f^{''}_{n-1}(x)$$plug in 1 we have $f_n^{''}(1)=qp^{2n-2}+pf_{n-1}^{''}(1)$. We can use this recursive formula to get $f_n^{''}(1)$.
$$$$ However, if I write $f_n(x)=f_{n-1} \circ f(x)$ and do the same thing. The final recursive formula is $$f_n^{''}(x)=f_{n-1}^{''}[f(x)][f^{'}(x)]^2+f_{n-1}^{'}(f(x))f^{''}(x)$$ Then the answer is $f_n^{''}(1)=f_{n-1}^{''}(1)p^2+p^{n-1}q$. Different answer...
I know it's a bit stupid but I really can not find where goes wrong? Thank you!
Both answers are correct. The recurrences are different but if you solve them by standard methods you will find that they both give $$f''_n(1)=\frac{q}{p-1}(p^{2n-1}-p^{n-1})\ .$$