How to calculate $$\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} e^{-n} (\frac{1}{n}+1)^{n^2}$$?
The result should be $$\frac{1}{\sqrt{e}}$$
But I have no idea how to get it.
I've been only thinking of rules to multiply the $e^{-n}$ through somehow, but I don't seem to find anything. The different quantities also seem to work in different directions making interpretation difficult, since: $$e^{-n}\rightarrow 0$$ $$(\frac{1}{n}+1) \rightarrow 1$$ $$n^2 \rightarrow \infty$$
So these interactions make it difficult to say anything about this.
Perhaps there's a way to develop inequalities that show which terms will dominate when approaching infinity?
Hints: some ideas with Taylor expansions as the comment says. Put
$$a_n=e^{-n}\left(1+\frac1n\right)^{n^2}\implies \log a_n=-n+n^2\log\left(1+\frac1n\right)=$$
$$=-n+n^2\left(\frac1n-\frac1{2n^2}+\mathcal O\left(\frac1{n^3}\right)\right)=\ldots$$