$$ I=\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty} \dfrac{\mathrm{d}x}{x^{2}+\sin x} $$ I took $$f(x)=\dfrac{1}{x}$$ and $$g(x)=\dfrac{1}{x+ \dfrac{\sin x}{x}}$$ then tried to find out limit of f(x)/g(x) as x tends to infinity with this i got the the integral as convergent but when i went with $$ \dfrac{\sin x}{x} \le 1$$ and got $$ \dfrac{1}{x\left(x+ \dfrac{\sin x}{x}\right)} \ge \dfrac{1}{x(x+1)} \implies \displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{x(x+1)} dx =\infty $$ two different results using different method ? please suggest something , thanks
2026-04-13 15:41:36.1776094896
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How to check if this improper integral converges or diverges ?
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Observe that in $\;(0,1]\;$ the integrand is a positive function , and
$$\frac{\frac1{x^2+\sin x}}{\frac1x}=\frac x{x^2+\sin x}\xrightarrow[x\to0^+]{}1$$
so by the Limit comparison Theorem , the integral $\;\int\limits_0^1\frac{dx}{x^2+\sin x}\;$ diverges
You did the second example correctly, and you did the first example almost correctly as well, but messed it up at the end.
You correctly computed the limit and found that it is constant. That means that either both functions have convergent integrals or both have divergent integrals. $\int_0^\infty dx/x$ is a divergent integral though, so the correct conclusion to reach with method $1$ is that the integral diverges, not converges.