Given
$f(x)=x\ln{x}$,
is it correct to say that $f(0)= \lim{}_{x\to{0}}f(x)=\lim{}_{x\to{0}}x\ln{x}=0$?
If this is true, why is this so? Is it because $0*n$, where $n$ is any value, is $0$?
My intuition tells me that is should be $f(0)=0ln(0)=0(-\infty)=\mathbf{undefined}$?
What is the correct reasoning?
This is in reference to this question on Cross Validated, where the first way to compute $f(0)$ was suggested in a comment. That solved the issue, but it doesn't make sense to me mathematically for the above concern when computing $f(0)$.
Try viewing it as $\dfrac{\ln(x)}{1/x}$, and then using L'Hopital's rule.
As you observed, just plugging in $x=0$ gives you the non-sensical quantity $$0\cdot\ln(0)=0\cdot(-\infty)=???.$$
This is an example of a limit where you cannot plug in the point being approached. Remember, the limit $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to a}f(x)$ only equals $f(a)$ if the function $f$ is continuous at $a$. The function $f(x)=x\ln(x)$ is certainly not continuous at $0$.